> But since it's "In the case of a dispute, we have an overwhelming advantage in a private court.", that makes it valid?
In theory, arbitration firms are supposed to be independent and unbiased. I'd love to see some statistics backing that up. If there were a case for arbitration firms heavily backing companies over individuals, then that'd be a much stronger case.
In theory, arbitration firms are supposed to be independent and unbiased. I'd love to see some statistics backing that up. If there were a case for arbitration firms heavily backing companies over individuals, then that'd be a much stronger case.