How forced arbitration is legal in the US never made sense to me.
If the clause was "In the case of a dispute, we win.", it'd be deemed invalid by the courts. But since it's "In the case of a dispute, we have an overwhelming advantage in a private court.", that makes it valid?
If the clause was "In the case of a dispute, we win.", it'd be deemed invalid by the courts. But since it's "In the case of a dispute, we have an overwhelming advantage in a private court.", that makes it valid?