davidmanescu
Joined 13 years ago
Joined 13 years ago
Each time the probability drops below 40% (in your example) it is likely because the fair odds swung in the latest polls. To attempt to take advantage of this is to ignore the recent evidence (conditional upon that evidence being quite different to the current concensus).
It's not at all unreasonable to do so, but isn't arbitrage. What if all polls started being increasingly conclusive leading up to election? 40, 39, ..., 0. No surprises and no arbitrage.
Perhaps another way to express this critique of Silver's methodology is that it lends too much weight on recent outlier observations? Sure if you knew this you could profit off these swings, but making the arbitrage argument doesn't add much to the discussion to my mind.
However a rational (impartial?) actor should be willing to take that risk if the premium is big enough. That could mean buying pre-fork or selling pre-fork if there is an obvious opportunity. Which means in an efficient market the risk premium should be zero "on average". It's hard to reason about averages with one sample but that sample was distinctly not zero!