In a previous comment, I sought to further understand how the Lottery possesses the Markov property. Based on your definition above, I can see that it does simply because the distribution X_t of winning numbers has the same dependence on X_{t-1} as it does on X_1, ..., X_{t-1}, that is, zero. Do I have that correct?
In a previous comment, I sought to further understand how the Lottery possesses the Markov property. Based on your definition above, I can see that it does simply because the distribution X_t of winning numbers has the same dependence on X_{t-1} as it does on X_1, ..., X_{t-1}, that is, zero. Do I have that correct?