The explanation of enharmonic equivalent (though the author didn't use this term) is right, but I do take problem with this sentence:
> but what musical difference does it make? In the present day, the answer is, none whatsoever.
This is not quite right. On all fretless instruments, including most bowed strings and the human voice, enharmonic equivalent notes still have different pitches. The subtle differences in intonation is incredibly important and noticeable on the violin, for example.
> but what musical difference does it make? In the present day, the answer is, none whatsoever.
This is not quite right. On all fretless instruments, including most bowed strings and the human voice, enharmonic equivalent notes still have different pitches. The subtle differences in intonation is incredibly important and noticeable on the violin, for example.