> The US manages the value of its currency indirectly but the market sets the price.
The market sets the price based on (amongst other things) interest rates, and the US sets the interest rates however it's more convenient for its trade.
Are you saying that one is acceptable and the other one isn't? To me it seems that the difference is one of degree. I'm highly suspicious of anyone who says that this difference is a good justification for tariffs.
The market sets the price based on (amongst other things) interest rates, and the US sets the interest rates however it's more convenient for its trade.
Are you saying that one is acceptable and the other one isn't? To me it seems that the difference is one of degree. I'm highly suspicious of anyone who says that this difference is a good justification for tariffs.