amelung
Joined 9 months ago
Joined 9 months ago
This money was needed for public expenditure and to keep the Greek banking system running.
The biggest creditor banks of the Greek state were, in fact, Greek (ca. 50–60 bn. Euro).
The biggest foreign creditor banks were French (ca. 42 bn. Euro).
Accordingly, France was for more financial support (for Greece) to be payed by all EU member states.
The German banks were only a distant third (ca. 25 bn. Euro). But the German state was the biggest donor among the EU member states.
That is why Germany and some other net contributors e.g. the Netherlands were not too keen on keeping Greece in the EU zone at all costs. For them, the solution you named (“defaulting and keeping the euro”) would have been the rather advantageous, but not for Greek nor for other powerful member states. Nor for the Greek oligarchs – remember, Greek is a country of only about 10 million people who were not that well off – in whose hands may have ended most of the 360 bn Euros of the old debt? They liked the toxic fairy tales Varoufakis was telling (married to a member of the Stratos family).
I think the Greek doesn't read «ΠΕΥΣΗ ΠΑΝ ΓΑΡ» but «ΠΕΥΣΗΙ ΠΑΝ ΓΑΡ» with «Ι», and «ΠΕΥΣΗΙ» = «πευσῃ» could be the 2nd sg. of the future of «πυνθάνομαι» ‹learn›. «ΠΑΝ» would be ‹all, every(thing)›, «ΓΑΡ» ‹namely, because (postponed)›. ‹… you will learn, everything namely …›? I don't know. – The «ΦΑΙΝΕΤΑΙ» ‹seems, appears› is on the next line, after some missing words.
or even determined to be long? The descriptions of the Alcaic strophe I found specify the first syllables of the first three verses as anceps but the first syllable of the fourth as long. Skimming the other odes in the third book, I havenʼt found another example where that would be doubtful. Maybe the hiatus candidates Trōica in 3:3, Pīeriō in 3:4, but fīet in a Sapphic strophe of 3:14 is certainly long.
But how is it long:
- probably not by position, because of muta cum liquida after the vowel. (An example for V.pl instead of Vp.l is capta virum puerosque ploret in 3:3.)
- the vowel length seems to be unclear, as indicated by Lewis / Short. I thought the etymology might help, but Walde / Hofmann tell that the etymology is unknown – and that a certain Muller Ait. W. 351 (?) is wrong to argue for a long o because it is clearly attested as short in verses by Accius and Lucretius.
So I am puzzled.
dul.cet.de.co:.rest.|pro:.pa.tri.a:.mo.ri:
mor.set.fu.ga:.cem.|per.se.qui.tur.vi.rum
nec.par.ci.tin.bel.li:s.iu.ven.tae
po:pli.ti.bus.ti.mi.do:.que.ter.go
(Not sure about the first syllable of "poplitibus": muta cum liquida and long "o"?)Reading it like in school (with qualitative stress marking the quantitative meter), that would be:
dulcét decórest | pró patriá morí
morsét fugácem | pérsequitúr virúm
nec párcit ínbellís iuvéntae
póplitibús timidóque térgo.
Thanks for the link!