Cornelius267
Joined 5 years ago
Joined 5 years ago
I don't think that his statement is meant to be an answer, rather, I think it's meant to be a statement to jump off of. It's bringing up how definitions matter, and that in different contexts the answer to the same questions could be yes or no.
Elon Musk, it seems, does not think about the humans affected by his decisions. Regardless of anyone's opinions on whether the culture was good or bad, this sort of sudden mass loss of employment will cause pain. Pain that didn't need to happen.
If you are at all interested in testing your belief, a highly accessible discussion can be found here: https://www.alieward.com/ologies/adhd
That's great, because I'm not arguing that. My post does not imply as such either. You are creating a fake argument that is easier for you to argue against.
"Ought to" is the basis of rule of law. By what measure do you decide that a "monopoly" is bad? It has certain outcomes, some positive, some negative, but on balance government in previous generations decided that they are negative.
But once you know that the outcome is negative, what do you do about it? You only take another step and break it apart if you decide that you "ought to" do so. Because you place value in a healthy society, or you place value in non-monopolistic market competition, or you place value in something else. But whatever you choose, in order to justify actually action you inevitably rely on an "ought to."
If the reason for breaking up monopolies is to improve society, in some broad sense, then you could use a similar reason to break up companies that are harmful to society. We do sanction companies that damage the environment, or lie to consumers with false claims, etc.
There is always an "ought to."
I agree with a general skepticism of the pharmaceutical industry. I disagree that all of neurology and pharmacology have been completely subsumed by that industry. It is not entirely free of it either, but there is more nuance here than you seem to be allowing.
It is also possible that they are not caused by negative life experiences, and are somehow inherent in the organization of a particular person's brain.
For example, here's a quora where someone with both talks about it: https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-difference-between-ADHD-an...
Or if you prefer a more 'scientific' source, here's one examining the comorbidity of ADHD and certain disorders, among which Schizoid Personality Disorder is one: https://www.elsevier.es/en-revista-revista-psiquiatria-salud...
They find a correlation, yes, but they are certainly not one and the same.
Facebook has facilitated/amplified quite a bit of awful things that have lead to real world violence, most particularly outside of the United States. Which is saying something, considering their contribution to political polarization in the US.
Whether or not they are a monopoly is orthogonal to the question put forward in this case.
This makes it seem like a personal failing of the person who is experiencing this disconnect, like the author. Neuroscience shows that this is not the case, and that those with schizoid personality disorders have true physiological and neurological differences.
I hope that you didn't intend to make this into some sort of judgment on the person for failing to "adjust themselves to fit in," because that is a huge part of the judgment that this author is feeling and trying to describe.
Our archaeology and history have had trouble grasping this, since the idea that power is its own end is so deeply ingrained in our (western) civilization. But it has not always been the case. David Graeber and David Wengrow's "The Dawn of Everything" illustrates this with evidence.
This is just kicking the can down the road. Why would you want to make a decision to pursue this thing that you decided brings you pleasure? Is pleasure in and of itself reason enough?
We know that all logical systems contain true statements that cannot be proven. This is a fundamental feature of all logical systems, so why should we expect that this restriction does not apply to our own internal logical systems?
I have recently had a similar realization as the author, and so this resonates with me. No matter what, you are engaging in some sort of ontology, some sort of idea that decides what is and is not, and what defines value. You can either engage with this ontology and critically reflect upon it, or you can pretend that you don't have one and therefore miss things that may otherwise have been evident to you.
It is impossible for someone who leads a company like that to be a good person. Why would anyone be surprised at them being heartless to their employees?
I am now going to speculate, though if this isn't your reason, I apologize. Perhaps it is because you, or others, think that the humanities are not complex enough to require such rigor, and that the presence of jargon is a mark of fake rigor, not real rigor. Is that correct?
You also say: "It also tends to deal with subjects that are not of interest to 90%+ of the public." Is any research? In any field? Looking at the remaining unsolved Millennium Problems in mathematics, do you think that the general public has any interest in the "Birch and Swinnerton-Dyer conjecture?" Whatever that is? I don't. I don't know what that means. I'm sure it's quite interesting if you do.
I do not believe that your point is correct.