So the op has stopped drinking coffee and was clear of headaches which he thinks is due to Dandy Blend.
However, he is still getting a considerable fraction of the caffeine he got previously, but now from tea. If he is still taking the active drug, Caffeine, why would he expect any withdrawal?
However, he is still getting a considerable fraction of the caffeine he got previously, but now from tea. If he is still taking the active drug, Caffeine, why would he expect any withdrawal?