I'm confused. Are you trying to assert that if homejoy did not exist, these workers would be receiving higher wages and would not need government services?
Or perhaps that if the government services you describe (e.g., free money if you don't work) did not exist, workers would have a stronger bargaining position to request higher rates from homejoy?
Or perhaps that if the government services you describe (e.g., free money if you don't work) did not exist, workers would have a stronger bargaining position to request higher rates from homejoy?
Could you clarify your counterfactual?