You can't sign a contract that sells you into slavery because of the 13th Amendment.
Why can you sign a contract that limits your freedom of speech in spite of the 1st Amendment?
Yes, I realize the law is complicated and there are many years of precedent distinguishing the two. But it's incorrect to argue that this isn't even in spirit related to the 1st Amendment.
Why can you sign a contract that limits your freedom of speech in spite of the 1st Amendment?
Yes, I realize the law is complicated and there are many years of precedent distinguishing the two. But it's incorrect to argue that this isn't even in spirit related to the 1st Amendment.