> I'm not sure what the argument is supposed to prove.
I’m guessing it’s supposed to show that if you have to have arbitrary levels of intelligence to interpret natural language, then nothing’s changed between now and 1978 when considering whether “natural language programming” is a thing. Just because the intelligence is artificial now doesn’t really change the answer.
I’m guessing it’s supposed to show that if you have to have arbitrary levels of intelligence to interpret natural language, then nothing’s changed between now and 1978 when considering whether “natural language programming” is a thing. Just because the intelligence is artificial now doesn’t really change the answer.