> This is a pretty disturbing result: low-gamma markets have extremely high densities of liars compared to the true distribution p(x) while high-gamma markets have only moderate amplification of deception.
Can someone explain this in plain English? I intuitively can believe the hypothesis made in the introduction of this article. But I don’t get all the complex math.
Can someone explain this in plain English? I intuitively can believe the hypothesis made in the introduction of this article. But I don’t get all the complex math.