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Comment by oakesm9

Such an easily debunkable line with even the tiniest bit of critical thinking.

You’re basically saying the drug companies subsidise a loss in Europe by over charging Americans, right?

As the drug company is a private and doesn’t have to sell everywhere, why wouldn’t they just skip the loss making Europeans and just sell to Americans? They’d make more profit that way!

That must mean they make some profit from the European prices, otherwise they wouldn’t be bothering.

parent oakesm9 11 months ago

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