Do EU treaties per se contain any language that might be relevant to privacy?
It seems axiomatic that legal systems contain provisions that prevent their violation. However, democracy requires that laws are voted on by elected representatives or plebiscites, which can of course mean repealing prior laws.
However the EU institutions are not sovereign, which might be the loophole here?
Edit: I'm aware that the EU is only afforded "competences" given to it by treaties, so perhaps human rights don't fall into any of these...?
However, I also wonder if legislation such as Chat Control, etc, might fall outside its competences.
In the end, the question is whether there is a legal mechanism by which the introduction of laws such as those in question here can be prohibited?
It seems axiomatic that legal systems contain provisions that prevent their violation. However, democracy requires that laws are voted on by elected representatives or plebiscites, which can of course mean repealing prior laws.
However the EU institutions are not sovereign, which might be the loophole here?
Edit: I'm aware that the EU is only afforded "competences" given to it by treaties, so perhaps human rights don't fall into any of these...?
However, I also wonder if legislation such as Chat Control, etc, might fall outside its competences.
In the end, the question is whether there is a legal mechanism by which the introduction of laws such as those in question here can be prohibited?