Comment by zettabomb

I have always wondered why Turkey chose to Latinize in this way. I understand that the issue is having two similar vowels in Turkish, but not why they decided to invent the dotless I, when other diacritics already existed. Ĭ Î Ï Í Ì Į Ĩ and almost certainly a dozen other would've worked, unless there was already some significance to the dot in Turkish that's not obvious.