Can someone explain if there's any logic at all to counting a countrys VAT as part of its tariffs? In my home country VAT is ultimately charged the end-customer and this happens regardless of the origin of the goods. How can this be a seen as a tariff?
Besides, isn't the "Use tax" most(?) American states have more or less equivalent in function?
Besides, isn't the "Use tax" most(?) American states have more or less equivalent in function?