I think it would cast doubt on the narrative "you could have trained o1 with much less compute, and r1 is proof of that", if it turned out that in order to train r1 in the first place, you had to have access to bunch of outputs from o1. In other words, you had to do the really expensive o1 training in the first place.
(with the caveat that all we have right now are accusations that DeepSeek made use of OpenAI data - it might just as well turn out that DeepSeek really did work independently, and you really could have gotten o1-like performance with much less compute)
(with the caveat that all we have right now are accusations that DeepSeek made use of OpenAI data - it might just as well turn out that DeepSeek really did work independently, and you really could have gotten o1-like performance with much less compute)