The paper seems to have a definition where bed posts are never deleted, i.e. they are all assigned probability 1 in which case the conjecture is obviously true.
The counterexample seems to rely on correlations between edge deletions which makes no sense because the deletions should be independent (in the definition I'm seeing on Wikipedia).
I could be wrong here because I haven't read it in detail but on first sight, it looks like there are some serious issues with mathematical rigour here.
The counterexample seems to rely on correlations between edge deletions which makes no sense because the deletions should be independent (in the definition I'm seeing on Wikipedia).
I could be wrong here because I haven't read it in detail but on first sight, it looks like there are some serious issues with mathematical rigour here.