Comment by hunterrrrrr

If I can take the profit on one and roll it into buying down the disposable income needed to afford a loan on another - which I can do in a falling interest rate environment - there should be not only a point of equilibrium for my relative purchasing power but also theoretically there will exist a point in which simply owning an appreciating asset would have been enough to have parity with whatever my overall purchasing power was, minus the asset. It’s the same function with the same saddle point.