That's the oppressor/oppressed narrative for any such difference. Hitler came to the same conclusion, and decided to do something about it. Various communists revolutionaries have used the same kind of thinking to get rid of the ruling classes in their countries after the revolution.
But if you consider it this way: The Nobel price was given mostly to white people (including Jews) until about 1970. That's a factor of 10 already.
Then you consider that Ashkenazi Jews have an average IQ of about 115 vs other Europeans somewhere south of 100 on average.
If the standard deviation is a constant 15, a population with a mean of 100 has about 0.4% of the population with an IQ >140. Increase the mean to 115, and that grows to about 5%. That's another factor of 10. And the gap widens as the threshold increases.
This seems to fit the 110x almost perfectly.
Disclaimer: I have no Jewish ancestry that I'm aware of.
Edit: Also, to my knowledge, the Nobel committee has NOT been dominated by Jews.
But if you consider it this way: The Nobel price was given mostly to white people (including Jews) until about 1970. That's a factor of 10 already.
Then you consider that Ashkenazi Jews have an average IQ of about 115 vs other Europeans somewhere south of 100 on average.
If the standard deviation is a constant 15, a population with a mean of 100 has about 0.4% of the population with an IQ >140. Increase the mean to 115, and that grows to about 5%. That's another factor of 10. And the gap widens as the threshold increases.
This seems to fit the 110x almost perfectly.
Disclaimer: I have no Jewish ancestry that I'm aware of.
Edit: Also, to my knowledge, the Nobel committee has NOT been dominated by Jews.