As an amateur mathematician whose use of sets is mostly as a lingua franca for describing other things, it's not clear to me what implications this has for the wider mathematical field, especially if the usefulness of NF is comparable to the established ZFC and its variants. Is it expected to become as popular as ZFC in machine proofs?
I do find the existence of a universal set more intuitive, so if nothing else this proof has rekindled my own interest in formalisation.
As an amateur mathematician whose use of sets is mostly as a lingua franca for describing other things, it's not clear to me what implications this has for the wider mathematical field, especially if the usefulness of NF is comparable to the established ZFC and its variants. Is it expected to become as popular as ZFC in machine proofs?
I do find the existence of a universal set more intuitive, so if nothing else this proof has rekindled my own interest in formalisation.