Am I crazy, or do fines never come close to matching damages? Or jailtime? I'm constantly seeing rulings or indictments where an article says "defendant faces $1500 in fines or two years jail time", as if those are in any way equivalent. Were all the fine quantities written up in 1875 and just never got updated?
In this case, defendants are accused of conning "at least 11,000 income share loans" "carrying an average finance charge of around $4,000", but their fine is $164,000? A fraud of $44M just for the financing charges produces a fine of $164K? As I missing something?
In this case, defendants are accused of conning "at least 11,000 income share loans" "carrying an average finance charge of around $4,000", but their fine is $164,000? A fraud of $44M just for the financing charges produces a fine of $164K? As I missing something?