context: Non-physicist here; and I struggled with maths from calculus onwards despite "liking" it.
Causality requires time - something (A) causing something else (B) means A and B are separated by time (or maybe distance). If they're not, then aren't they "the same thing", and the event is a single system and no energy or information has changed? In fact, the idea of _change_ also requires time. All the graphs in the abstract of the paper show a value Y and time axes.
How is any of this "1D"? Why isn't it 2D, with one of the Ds measuring time? Do physicists just ignore time because it's always there? How can that work if time is relative? Surely that _forces_ us to always pay attention to it? (and if time is relative, doesn't that mean you also need a 3rd D against which to observe the relativity, all just to measure that one dimension you were interested in?)
Causality requires time - something (A) causing something else (B) means A and B are separated by time (or maybe distance). If they're not, then aren't they "the same thing", and the event is a single system and no energy or information has changed? In fact, the idea of _change_ also requires time. All the graphs in the abstract of the paper show a value Y and time axes.
How is any of this "1D"? Why isn't it 2D, with one of the Ds measuring time? Do physicists just ignore time because it's always there? How can that work if time is relative? Surely that _forces_ us to always pay attention to it? (and if time is relative, doesn't that mean you also need a 3rd D against which to observe the relativity, all just to measure that one dimension you were interested in?)