Why don't you subscribe to the more reasonable explanation that accenting male genitalia doesn't confer an advantage and instead seem to be advocating for a "it does, but it's illegal," stance which doesn't seem to be rooted in reality?
Based on your comments, what seems to be driving your position instead is an assumption that there is a grave social injustice aimed at men. Is it not?
Based on your comments, what seems to be driving your position instead is an assumption that there is a grave social injustice aimed at men. Is it not?