I'm also confused as to how "insufficient whole grain intake" has such a high correlation. "Whole wheat flour" hasn't been the norm in the US since the late 1800s and yet we only seem to have a Type-2 Diabetes problem recently.
Any study like this needs to have an explanation for the recentness of obesity and diabetes epidemics.
Any study like this needs to have an explanation for the recentness of obesity and diabetes epidemics.