There are many comments saying that one infinity can be larger than another because a bijective mapping can't be formed, but why does the presence of a mapping imply anything about the "size" of an infinity? For any infinite set, you could select unique values out of them indefinitely.
From my uninformed perspective, this seems like a co-opting of the word "size" to mean something different than its typical usage.
From my uninformed perspective, this seems like a co-opting of the word "size" to mean something different than its typical usage.