I was reading this and came across "No losses associated with the resolution of Silicon Valley Bank will be borne by the taxpayer."
What does this "special assessment on banks" mean in practice? Do they just go to all the bulge bracket banks and demand that they buy the outdated Treasuries at a loss? How does this work?
What does this "special assessment on banks" mean in practice? Do they just go to all the bulge bracket banks and demand that they buy the outdated Treasuries at a loss? How does this work?