If the correlation between income disparity and crime rates remains despite a net drop in crime, how is that a refutation of inequality of disparity as a component to crime?
Wouldn't a larger drop in crime in more-equal countries than less-equal countries only re-affirm that though there are clearly other factors involved, inequality is still a component?
I don't actually know the numbers but I'd think it would be pretty easy to look and see whether crime rates are dropping uniformly, or if less-equal countries are seeing a lower drop than more-equal ones.
Wouldn't a larger drop in crime in more-equal countries than less-equal countries only re-affirm that though there are clearly other factors involved, inequality is still a component?
I don't actually know the numbers but I'd think it would be pretty easy to look and see whether crime rates are dropping uniformly, or if less-equal countries are seeing a lower drop than more-equal ones.