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Comment by hackandthink

I am confused:

"From a proof-theoretic perspective, Heyting’s calculus is a restriction of classical logic in which the law of excluded middle and double negation elimination have been removed" (1)

"Intuitionistic logic can be understood as a weakening of classical logic, meaning that it is more conservative in what it allows a reasoner to infer" (1)

How is this compatible with:

"The systems ZF and IZF (ZF but without LEM) are equiconsistent." ?

(1) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intuitionistic_logic

Seems to be quite subtle (proof theoretic strength and consistency strength)

(2) https://mathoverflow.net/questions/126002/interpretability-a...

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