It would be interesting to explore whether this has any effect on the hypothesis, based purely on letterform comparisons, that runes may be traced to semitic symbols, presumably introduced by Carthaginian refugees or, anyway, travellers.
(This idea has been dismissed as impossible based on the timeline, as the oldest runes postdate Carthage's demolition by centuries, but that argument depends on assuming we have a complete archaeological record, which we of course do not.)
If the older letterforms more closely resemble a semitic form, it would be powerful evidence in favor. If not, things get more complicated.
(This idea has been dismissed as impossible based on the timeline, as the oldest runes postdate Carthage's demolition by centuries, but that argument depends on assuming we have a complete archaeological record, which we of course do not.)
If the older letterforms more closely resemble a semitic form, it would be powerful evidence in favor. If not, things get more complicated.