To clarify, there are two logical consequences of that parent comment.
Suppose a 65yo person watches too much tv and still votes.
1. In order to be allowed to vote, they need to watch less tv.
2. They don't get to vote otherwise.
My point is: we have so much stigma against the elderly in this country that arguments like these even appear reasonable at first glance. I'm arguing that there are dark consequences of this line of thinking.
So, how is this not the same as another restrictive voting requirement, such as literacy tests or poll taxes?
Suppose a 65yo person watches too much tv and still votes.
1. In order to be allowed to vote, they need to watch less tv.
2. They don't get to vote otherwise.
My point is: we have so much stigma against the elderly in this country that arguments like these even appear reasonable at first glance. I'm arguing that there are dark consequences of this line of thinking.
So, how is this not the same as another restrictive voting requirement, such as literacy tests or poll taxes?