Assuming rebalancing, it seems to me that your wait time EV is the same either way, with less variance in the single queue case. Thus the shopper throughput should remain the same. Can someone explain to me if/why this is wrong?
Also, where did the HN title come from? I could not find that claim in the article.
Assuming rebalancing, it seems to me that your wait time EV is the same either way, with less variance in the single queue case. Thus the shopper throughput should remain the same. Can someone explain to me if/why this is wrong?
Also, where did the HN title come from? I could not find that claim in the article.