> The comparison to Canada and prohibition doesn’t pass the smell test. Given that the war of 1812 wasn’t predicated on getting the Canadians into a drunken stupor as a tactic of economic warfare.
Since we’re speculating freely anyway, why does the revenge have to come in the same form as the initial affront?
Since we’re speculating freely anyway, why does the revenge have to come in the same form as the initial affront?