I see the claim made that caste-ism doesn't fall under existing discrimination laws, but I don't really see how it's actually any different from run-of-the-mill racism.
Caste is familially inherited. So a person is being judged based upon their ancestry. The only difference between "that group of families is inherently inferior" and "that race is inherently inferior" seems to be how broadly/narrowly you define "race". So a legal argument should be able to be made that discriminating based on caste is discriminating based on race, a protected class.
Am I missing something? If so could someone correct me?
Caste is familially inherited. So a person is being judged based upon their ancestry. The only difference between "that group of families is inherently inferior" and "that race is inherently inferior" seems to be how broadly/narrowly you define "race". So a legal argument should be able to be made that discriminating based on caste is discriminating based on race, a protected class.
Am I missing something? If so could someone correct me?