> The board represents ALL the shareholders, after all.
This is the part I don't get. The person who bought 51% of shares is also a shareholder. How come the board can discriminate against a single owner like this, just taking away their shares by force. Could they do it to any existing owner if they wanted?
This is the part I don't get. The person who bought 51% of shares is also a shareholder. How come the board can discriminate against a single owner like this, just taking away their shares by force. Could they do it to any existing owner if they wanted?