I asserted that 5th amendment should prevent the government from using this coerced testimony.
Would this not taint any investigation started on the basis of coerced testimony? Why would the exclusionary rule not kick in here?
As far as I understand in a criminal context no adverse inference may be drawn from ones refusal to self-incriminate. How would investigating someone for refusing to self-incriminate to the IRS not be exactly that?
Would this not taint any investigation started on the basis of coerced testimony? Why would the exclusionary rule not kick in here?
As far as I understand in a criminal context no adverse inference may be drawn from ones refusal to self-incriminate. How would investigating someone for refusing to self-incriminate to the IRS not be exactly that?
E: Found some related literature which I am reading now https://scholarlycommons.law.wlu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?art...