> But now there was no genuine possibility of renewal — in 1453 Rome had truly fallen.
I understand how different the Ottoman regime was, but they definitely used many of the already existing roman/byzantine power structures for their rule. Can one not view the Ottomans as another transformation within a continuum of the “Roman Empire”
I understand how different the Ottoman regime was, but they definitely used many of the already existing roman/byzantine power structures for their rule. Can one not view the Ottomans as another transformation within a continuum of the “Roman Empire”