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Comment by fighterpilot

I know that the Weimar Republic had anti-semitic censorship laws. I made almost the same argument that you are making just 2 months ago:

https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=27865484

"My understanding is that pre-Nazi Germany had hate speech laws, and it didn't seem to work there?"

I abandoned my views on this question for a few reasons:

- The Weimar Republic laws either weren't effective at preventing distribution or they weren't actually enforced. The continued circulation of Der Sturmer is evidence of this. The judiciary was known to be heavily biased in favor of the far-right, where less than 10% of far-right political killers were convicted and the majority of far-left political killers were convicted.

- Online censorship is far less likely to create martyrs than the visual/emotional imagery of imprisoning people.

- Online censorship is far more effective at preventing distribution.

- Failing to censor online leads to automatic mass-distribution due to the consolidation of eyeballs in a small number of venues. Failing to censor offline does not. There is less scale to be had offline.

- Online censorship that we're talking about is private and voluntary. It is not in the same category as government censorship as far as downside risk is concerned.

> Given that what you advocate for is virtually identical

It is not "virtually identical". As I've said, the context is extremely different. You can't draw an analogy as much as you keep trying.

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