> It has nothing to do with what the model is being used for.
I may be misunderstanding this passage of the article, but I thought the author was claiming that machine learning (specifically training) was equivalent to compression, while language understanding is equivalent to decompression. Therefore, they can't be the same thing. Why does language understand have to be analogous to training an ML model rather than using an ML model for inference?
I may be misunderstanding this passage of the article, but I thought the author was claiming that machine learning (specifically training) was equivalent to compression, while language understanding is equivalent to decompression. Therefore, they can't be the same thing. Why does language understand have to be analogous to training an ML model rather than using an ML model for inference?