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Comment by quiescant_dodo

I think you missed the point.

Measuring one-way speed of light requires perfectly synchronized clocks. You cannot do this over any distance, as it requires the speed of light to propagate between the clocks. So you must synchronize the clocks when they are together.

But then you must move at least one clock, which subjects the clocks to unknown time dilation. We can't even assume that the time dilation from movement X is the same as from movement -X, even to impossibly-precise measurements and controls. The _premise_ of the question about one-way speed of light is un-divorceable from time dilation. If you _assume_ that the time dilation is the exact same, you are also _assuming_ that the amount of time light takes from A-to-B is exactly half of A-to-B-to-A.

Einstein himself articulated this problem. He's certainly known for more than "attempting to be a physicist".

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