Comment by wsowens

For the example of H(X) where X ~ Geom(p), shouldn't the second term be multiplied by (k-1) after breaking up the logarithm? That is, shouldn't

  pq^(k-1)log(q)

be

  (k-1)pq^(k-1)log(q) 

Apologies if I'm off base here, I'm pretty rusty on infinite series.

Great piece, this is really making this concept more intuitive for me.