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Comment by robocat

I just read this preprint: https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2020.03.05.20031773v...

People over ~50 have a ~50% chance of not showing symptoms, under 50 is ~10%. I wonder if there was a flu/cold epidemic 50 years ago that is causing the difference?

I know that some flus have different effects depending on age group due to cohort exposure decades ago.

Though it is a preprint, so could be all sorts of sampling reasons for that outcome.

parent robocat 6 years ago

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