the “background” says that “ Currently, there is no evidence to support the use of hydroxychloroquine in SARS-CoV-2 infection.” but the results and conclusion are :
RESULTS:
Hydroxychloroquine (EC50=0.72 μM) was found to be more potent than chloroquine (EC50=5.47 μM) in vitro. Based on PBPK models results, a loading dose of 400 mg twice daily of hydroxychloroquine sulfate given orally, followed by a maintenance dose of 200 mg given twice daily for 4 days is recommended for SARS-CoV-2 infection, as it reached three times the potency of chloroquine phosphate when given 500 mg twice daily 5 days in advance.
CONCLUSIONS:
Hydroxychloroquine was found to be more potent than chloroquine to inhibit SARS-CoV-2 in vitro.“
RESULTS: Hydroxychloroquine (EC50=0.72 μM) was found to be more potent than chloroquine (EC50=5.47 μM) in vitro. Based on PBPK models results, a loading dose of 400 mg twice daily of hydroxychloroquine sulfate given orally, followed by a maintenance dose of 200 mg given twice daily for 4 days is recommended for SARS-CoV-2 infection, as it reached three times the potency of chloroquine phosphate when given 500 mg twice daily 5 days in advance.
CONCLUSIONS: Hydroxychloroquine was found to be more potent than chloroquine to inhibit SARS-CoV-2 in vitro.“
can someone make sense of this?