In that case surely you'd agree that there are hardly any compilers in wide use these days - more often than not the first step of a modern compiler is translation into a similar but less expressive intermediate language.
Or does it only count as "transpilation" if the intermediate representation is an already existing language, thus making the distincion purely based on the history of a language, not the implementation?
Or does it only count as "transpilation" if the intermediate representation is an already existing language, thus making the distincion purely based on the history of a language, not the implementation?