Comment by mises

When I read things like this, I start to wonder: when wealth inequality is discussed, how is it measured? I recall hearing that Jeff Bezos regularly loses billions due to fluctuations in Amazon stock. How much of the "wealth" in wealth inequality is actually based on paper gains? In other words, it seems that the richer you are, the more exposure you might have to the vagaries of the market. Maybe you are rich enough that you can afford to take that hit, but you will also likely lose more in dollars, I would assume.