> I don’t accept you can survey 90000 developers and cannot offer any generalisation from those results without quanatitively proving there is an overwhelming sample bias, and specifically quantifying the degree of that bias.
Surely you have this backwards? If you want to argue that a survey offers any generalisation, then surely the onus is on you to prove you've accounted for sample bias (amongst others)?
Surely you have this backwards? If you want to argue that a survey offers any generalisation, then surely the onus is on you to prove you've accounted for sample bias (amongst others)?