> In the abstract, you get this statement: "The drop in wages depressed the labor supply of men and increased that of women, especially in married couples."
Seems to get cause and effect backwards. Isn't it more likely that an increase in labor supply (women entering the workforce) had, simply by the laws of supply and demand, decreased wages?[1]
[1] https://www.dol.gov/wb/stats/NEWSTATS/facts/women_lf.htm#one
The paper is full of complicated-looking economic models and nice graphs-- but if you don't get the basic assumptions right it's hard to trust the fancy models.
Seems to get cause and effect backwards. Isn't it more likely that an increase in labor supply (women entering the workforce) had, simply by the laws of supply and demand, decreased wages?[1] [1] https://www.dol.gov/wb/stats/NEWSTATS/facts/women_lf.htm#one
The paper is full of complicated-looking economic models and nice graphs-- but if you don't get the basic assumptions right it's hard to trust the fancy models.