What biological mechanism would make this the case? Are you saying it has to do with bio-availability? Half-life? Onset? Duration?
What about IM? What about rectal administration? How about sublingual? Are there any papers suggesting that IV is somehow quantitatively different from the aforementioned methods?
My personal experience is that IM, IV, and snorted all made me feel better for maybe a period of 2 weeks. I wasn't necessarily doing a "clinical" dose, whatever that means (maybe 25-75mg of IM or IV and 100-250mg snorted), but the anti-depressant effects all seemed comparable.
A drug crossing the blood-brain barrier is a drug crossing the blood-brain barrier. There should be no difference in administration if we are talking about weeks to months later.
What about IM? What about rectal administration? How about sublingual? Are there any papers suggesting that IV is somehow quantitatively different from the aforementioned methods?
My personal experience is that IM, IV, and snorted all made me feel better for maybe a period of 2 weeks. I wasn't necessarily doing a "clinical" dose, whatever that means (maybe 25-75mg of IM or IV and 100-250mg snorted), but the anti-depressant effects all seemed comparable.
A drug crossing the blood-brain barrier is a drug crossing the blood-brain barrier. There should be no difference in administration if we are talking about weeks to months later.