> IPs are distinctly /not/ PII. They're identified /by name/ in the regulation. Anyone who brings this up as a topic has not actually read the regulations.. or they have and are trying to create uncertainty for some objective.
Have you yourself read the regulation? You are wrong.
The regulation makes a single reference (by name) to IP addresses. In recital 30. In that recital, it specifically declares IP address to be PD (GDPR doesn't use the term PII at all).
Not to confuse the matter, but if you stopped there, and decided IP addresses were PD, you would have stopped short. It requires deeper analysis. Here are two good ones:
Have you yourself read the regulation? You are wrong.
The regulation makes a single reference (by name) to IP addresses. In recital 30. In that recital, it specifically declares IP address to be PD (GDPR doesn't use the term PII at all).
Not to confuse the matter, but if you stopped there, and decided IP addresses were PD, you would have stopped short. It requires deeper analysis. Here are two good ones:
https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/personal-data/ https://www.whitecase.com/publications/alert/court-confirms-...
The soundbite-sized answer is: it depends.